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Liverpool vs Spurs Match Thread

tiger666

Large Member
Jan 4, 2005
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Giovanni

Well-Known Member
Aug 31, 2012
2,587
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Kane was offside according to how Ive always understood the rule

1. it doesnt matter that it came off a Liverpool player last
2. he was definitely "interfering with an opponent" in this case the keeper

doesnt matter since he missed the pen so quit whining you dumb scousers.

https://www.fifa.com/mm/document/afdeveloping/refereeing/law_11_offside_en_47383.pdf

I disagree. The ball came off 2 pool players! The forward ball was simply a forward pass which was deflected by 2 pool players. The pass was for lamela. The second it had taken 2 touches from pool players it was effectively free ball.
Hard for me to explain clearly.
Just image....
1. A left back has the ball in the oppositions half and he looks to switch play from left to right....he strikes the ball (for somebody who is on the other side of pitch onside).
2. He hits the ball but as it becomes airborne it his an opposition player on tbe head and the ball changes direction and loops over his own teams defence.
3. There happens to be a striker there (who was offside when the attempted switch of play took place) who suddenly has a through ball to latch onto.

Should he be offside? No.

Ive not helped matters have i. o_O
 

nightgoat

Well-Known Member
Sep 12, 2005
24,604
21,898

hughy

I'm SUPER cereal.
Nov 18, 2007
31,921
57,124
If we didn't get the penalty I'd have like to have seen retrospective action taken against Can for his attempt to con the referee in to believing Lovren didn't get a touch on the ball.

Surely trying to con a team out of a penalty is as bad as trying to con the referee in to giving you a penalty.
 

Streetspur77

Happy Clapper
Jul 20, 2017
2,792
9,404
Kane was offside according to how Ive always understood the rule

1. it doesnt matter that it came off a Liverpool player last
2. he was definitely "interfering with an opponent" in this case the keeper

doesnt matter since he missed the pen so quit whining you dumb scousers.

https://www.fifa.com/mm/document/afdeveloping/refereeing/law_11_offside_en_47383.pdf

I think the difference here though is that it didn't just deflect off lovren but lovren actually attempted to play the ball. So ignoring the fact lovren is shit and miskicked it he still technically passed to Kane, rather than just a deflection
 

fortworthspur

Well-Known Member
Nov 12, 2007
11,248
17,550
I disagree. The ball came off 2 pool players! The forward ball was simply a forward pass which was deflected by 2 pool players. The pass was for lamela. The second it had taken 2 touches from pool players it was effectively free ball.
Hard for me to explain clearly.
Just image....
1. A left back has the ball in the oppositions half and he looks to switch play from left to right....he strikes the ball (for somebody who is on the other side of pitch onside).
2. He hits the ball but as it becomes airborne it his an opposition player on tbe head and the ball changes direction and loops over his own teams defence.
3. There happens to be a striker there (who was offside when the attempted switch of play took place) who suddenly has a through ball to latch onto.

Should he be offside? No.

Ive not helped matters have i. o_O

the FIFA link states you are offside if the ball is deflected off an opponent. it doesnt say anything about if an opponent intentionally kicks it. I cant find anything that addresses that but like I said, its always been offsides to me. You have to have two opponents behind you the last time the ball is hit, throws being the exception of course.
 

Matrix

Well-Known Member
Aug 9, 2008
2,923
5,679
The pundits are Carragher, Souness and that absolute mong Jamie Redknapp! Might as well sit there with their Liverpool shirts on! Carragher and Souness are good when the subject isn’t Liverpool related. Redknapp jnr is absolutely stealing a living, he’s a complete idiot who offers nothing
Thought Souness was spot on. He put Redknapp in his place, as per usual.
 

cwy21

Well-Known Member
May 11, 2009
9,761
8,420
Kane was offside according to how Ive always understood the rule

1. it doesnt matter that it came off a Liverpool player last

It does matter. The defender deliberately played the ball and it was not a save.

A player in an offside position receiving the ball from an opponent who
deliberately plays the ball (except from a deliberate save by any opponent) is
not considered to have gained an advantage.
Lovern deliberately played the ball. The fact that he played the ball poorly does not mean he gets bailed out by the offside flag.

2. he was definitely "interfering with an opponent" in this case the keeper

eea5veg.jpg


interfering with an opponent by:
• preventing an opponent from playing or being able to play the ball by clearly obstructing the opponent’s line of vision or
• challenging an opponent for the ball or
• clearly attempting to play a ball which is close to him when this action impacts on an opponent or
• making an obvious action which clearly impacts on the ability of an opponent to play the ball​

At the moment in the image above, he is not preventing an opponent from playing the ball nor is he obstructing the keepers line of vision.

He is not challenging an opponent for the ball. Kane standing in that position is not a challenge for the ball.

He is not attempting to play the ball (yet). This is tougher to convince you of because you probably think "of course he's attempting to play the ball here". But what IFAB means by attempt to play or challenge for the ball means making a move towards the ball or being shoulder to shoulder with the defender in an attempt to win the ball.

He's not making an obvious action to impact the opponent from playing the ball. Kane standing there is not an obvious action. The defender chooses to play the ball here. Yes he is probably playing the ball because Kane is there, but then you require the referee to be able to read the mind of a defender and ask why they played the ball. IFAB/FIFA has said since 2012 (or so) that a player standing in an offside position is not enough to say that they impacted an opponent from playing the ball. They need to actually challenge the defender or prevent them from playing the ball to be judged to have interfered with them.

I know some fans don't like it. I know "back in my day" that this was offside. It's not anymore and it hasn't been for five or six years. The law was changed in an attempt to promote more attacking and open football. If you disagree with the rule, ask yourself this. Why should the defender be rewarded for making a mistake and misplaying the ball?
 

Johnny J

Not the Kiwi you need but the one you deserve
Aug 18, 2012
18,536
48,902
It does matter. The defender deliberately played the ball and it was not a save.

A player in an offside position receiving the ball from an opponent who
deliberately plays the ball (except from a deliberate save by any opponent) is
not considered to have gained an advantage.
Lovern deliberately played the ball. The fact that he played the ball poorly does not mean he gets bailed out by the offside flag.



eea5veg.jpg


interfering with an opponent by:
• preventing an opponent from playing or being able to play the ball by clearly obstructing the opponent’s line of vision or
• challenging an opponent for the ball or
• clearly attempting to play a ball which is close to him when this action impacts on an opponent or
• making an obvious action which clearly impacts on the ability of an opponent to play the ball​

At the moment in the image above, he is not preventing an opponent from playing the ball nor is he obstructing the keepers line of vision.

He is not challenging an opponent for the ball. Kane standing in that position is not a challenge for the ball.

He is not attempting to play the ball (yet). This is tougher to convince you of because you probably think "of course he's attempting to play the ball here". But what IFAB means by attempt to play or challenge for the ball means making a move towards the ball or being shoulder to shoulder with the defender in an attempt to win the ball.

He's not making an obvious action to impact the opponent from playing the ball. Kane standing there is not an obvious action. The defender chooses to play the ball here. Yes he is probably playing the ball because Kane is there, but then you require the referee to be able to read the mind of a defender and ask why they played the ball. IFAB/FIFA has said since 2012 (or so) that a player standing in an offside position is not enough to say that they impacted an opponent from playing the ball. They need to actually challenge the defender or prevent them from playing the ball to be judged to have interfered with them.

I know some fans don't like it. I know "back in my day" that this was offside. It's not anymore and it hasn't been for five or six years. The law was changed in an attempt to promote more attacking and open football. If you disagree with the rule, ask yourself this. Why should the defender be rewarded for making a mistake and misplaying the ball?
Great post, spot on.

Both were penalties. If Liverpool fans want to be annoyed, it should be Lovren for fucking up his clearance, Karius for going in hard on Kane, and Van Dijk for kicking Lamela in the back of the leg in the box, thus giving the ref a decision to make, regardless of how dramatically Lamela went down.

Alli's dive was fucking embarrassing though.
 

Giovanni

Well-Known Member
Aug 31, 2012
2,587
3,614
@cwy21 has it spot on. Not only did he play the ball deliberately but it was after allis forward pass jad already taken 1 deflection from a pool player.
 

fortworthspur

Well-Known Member
Nov 12, 2007
11,248
17,550
It does matter. The defender deliberately played the ball and it was not a save.

A player in an offside position receiving the ball from an opponent who
deliberately plays the ball (except from a deliberate save by any opponent) is
not considered to have gained an advantage.
Lovern deliberately played the ball. The fact that he played the ball poorly does not mean he gets bailed out by the offside flag.



eea5veg.jpg


interfering with an opponent by:
• preventing an opponent from playing or being able to play the ball by clearly obstructing the opponent’s line of vision or
• challenging an opponent for the ball or
• clearly attempting to play a ball which is close to him when this action impacts on an opponent or
• making an obvious action which clearly impacts on the ability of an opponent to play the ball​

At the moment in the image above, he is not preventing an opponent from playing the ball nor is he obstructing the keepers line of vision.

He is not challenging an opponent for the ball. Kane standing in that position is not a challenge for the ball.

He is not attempting to play the ball (yet). This is tougher to convince you of because you probably think "of course he's attempting to play the ball here". But what IFAB means by attempt to play or challenge for the ball means making a move towards the ball or being shoulder to shoulder with the defender in an attempt to win the ball.

He's not making an obvious action to impact the opponent from playing the ball. Kane standing there is not an obvious action. The defender chooses to play the ball here. Yes he is probably playing the ball because Kane is there, but then you require the referee to be able to read the mind of a defender and ask why they played the ball. IFAB/FIFA has said since 2012 (or so) that a player standing in an offside position is not enough to say that they impacted an opponent from playing the ball. They need to actually challenge the defender or prevent them from playing the ball to be judged to have interfered with them.

I know some fans don't like it. I know "back in my day" that this was offside. It's not anymore and it hasn't been for five or six years. The law was changed in an attempt to promote more attacking and open football. If you disagree with the rule, ask yourself this. Why should the defender be rewarded for making a mistake and misplaying the ball?

yeah, I just saw the new rule about deliberate play from a defender, so no offside. had the ball simply deflected to Kane his subsequent actions would have counted as "playing the ball" and it would have been whistled.

but its academic because he missed the pen.
 

jolsnogross

Well-Known Member
May 17, 2005
3,777
5,517
Everyone might reasonably have thought that Kane was offside for the first penalty. It was only well after the final whistle that we found out what the big debate was about: Lovren touched the ball on the way through to Kane, playing him onside.

I don't think anyone should be "blamed" for Salah's second goal. You don't "blame" defenders when Messi scores one of those and this was in that class.

He was offside from the original through ball - the fact that Lovren touched it didn't make him onside from the original pass. And that touch didn't make it a 2nd phase of play, so presumably he should have been flagged.

And it was a great goal by Salah, but I'll maintain my overly-critical stance that Lloris was flat on the ground before he kicked it.
 

Wirral Spurs

Well-Known Member
Jun 9, 2009
958
1,386
yeah, I just saw the new rule about deliberate play from a defender, so no offside. had the ball simply deflected to Kane his subsequent actions would have counted as "playing the ball" and it would have been whistled.

but its academic because he missed the pen.

Exactly, why all the fuss?
 

cwy21

Well-Known Member
May 11, 2009
9,761
8,420
Eriksen using his jedi powers.
"I'm not sure he touched the ball."
"Well, he touched the ball!"
"Penalty."

https://streamable.com/fkrh0

The AR tells Moss that he couldn't tell if Lovren played the ball, but if he did it would be a PK. Eriksen said he did and Emre Can said he didn't. Moss apparently doesn't know either and you can even hear him ask Atkinson (4th official) if he knows. Since they can't be 100% sure that Lovren didn't touch the ball, Moss goes with the PK.
 
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